Jesus says that he has not come to abolish the Law (Mt 5:17) and yet, no Christian keeps the Law as would a faithful Jew. Using the biblical texts assigned and the two accompanying readings which I wrote, please explain this seeming contradiction.
That Jesus says he has not come to abolish the Law, yet no Christian keeps the Law like a faithful Jew, seems a bit contradictory. Based on the readings, it is clear that Jesus does not mean to abolish the previous Law. He is the anti-type of the Law, which inherently means he is its fulfillment, not abandonment. According to the “Sermon on the Mount” reading, the Law is often “adjusted” to fit the context of a particular time or a particular people. Perhaps in modern times, the version of the Law from the Old Testament is deemed not as relevant in our modern world or cultural context. So, this could explain (not fully, however) this difference between Judaism and Christianity.
Jesus’s identity as Jewish seems to make this a bit more complicated, though. If Jesus is Jewish and therefore acts according to the Law, why is the way in which Christians follow the ways of Jesus different from the Laws given in the Old Testament?
Another possibility is that the Jewish interpretation of the Law is more strict and literal, whereas the Christian interpretation, in light of the presumably more important teachings of Jesus, is more metaphorical. In this case, the Law could be used as more of a guide to understanding the nature of God rather than a necessary set of actions for an individual or a people to take. The innate difference in this case would be that Christian interpretation focuses most heavily on Jesus and his life, instead of the Jewish tradition which still heavily adheres to the Law in its given form.